A 48-year-old female presents with chronic intermittent abdominal pain and diarrhea for 1 year.
A 48-year-old female presents with chronic intermittent abdominal pain and diarrhea for 1 year. She reports having episodes of moderate abdominal cramping four to five times per week. She has normal vital signs and an unremarkable abdominal examination. The patient has had multiple negative diagnostic studies, including gallbladder ultrasound, CT abdomen/pelvis, MRI
abdomen/pelvis, stool studies, and colonoscopy. You suspect irritable bowel syndrome. Which of the following is the best next step in management until she sees her primary care physician?